Patient Assessment

Sample questions.

8 free patient assessment questions with answers and explanations. MedRelay's full question bank covers every NREMT domain, plus live scenarios that grade the decision, not just the answer.

1. Question 1

   You respond to a 37-year-old male who is in severe abdominal pain. He reports the pain started suddenly about 4 hours ago in his umbilical region and has now migrated to his right lower quadrant at a point one-third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus. Palpation at this point produces the most intense pain he has ever felt. On releasing the pressure suddenly he cries out even louder. What does rebound tenderness at McBurney's point indicate?

   • A.Peritoneal irritation at McBurney's point (the anatomicalCorrect
   • B.Rebound tenderness is a normal finding when very
   • C."Rebound tenderness indicates only muscular strain"
   • D.McBurney's point is located near the stomach

   Why:Correct. McBurney's point: located one-third of the way from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus — the anatomical surface projection of the appendix. Pain migrating from periumbilical to McBurney's point is the classic appendicitis progression as inflammation spreads to the parietal peritoneum. Rebound tenderness confirms peritoneal irritation. Priority 1 surgical transport.

2. Question 2

   You respond to a 47-year-old male who reports sudden onset of his right foot dropping while he was crossing the street. He says it happened once before 2 months ago and resolved after a few days. He has no pain. His right ankle cannot dorsiflex (lift up) — it hangs in a downward position. His sensation over the dorsum of his right foot is reduced. GCS is 15. BP is 136/78. What nerve is affected in foot drop from a common peroneal nerve palsy?

   • A.The sciatic nerve — it supplies all leg muscles
   • B.The common peroneal nerve (also called commonCorrect
   • C.The femoral nerve — it controls knee extension
   • D.The tibial nerve — it controls plantar flexion

   Why:Correct. Common peroneal nerve palsy: the common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular head and is vulnerable to compression. It innervates the anterior compartment (tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum) producing foot drop when injured. Dorsal foot sensory loss is also present. Recurrent brief episodes distinguish this from stroke (stroke foot drop does not resolve and recur). Transport for evaluation to confirm peripheral vs central cause.

3. Question 3

   At a college dorm, a 19-year-old female takes warfarin and fell with a head strike. Why does this matter?

   • A.Bleeding riskCorrect
   • B.No relevance
   • C.Aspirin indication
   • D.Glucose need

   Why:Correct. Anticoagulants increase bleeding risk after trauma, including intracranial bleeding.

4. Question 4

   You respond to a 62-year-old female who reports that her hands go pale then turn blue then red when she goes outside in the cold. Today both hands are white and she reports numbness and pain in her fingers. She warms her hands and they slowly return to normal color. She has no trauma history. HR 76, BP 126/78, SpO2 98%. What is this triphasic color change of the digits in response to cold called?

   • A.Peripheral vascular disease from atherosclerosis
   • B.Raynaud's phenomenonCorrect
   • C."Frostbite from cold exposure"
   • D.Digital artery thrombosis requiring emergency surgery

   Why:Correct. Raynaud's phenomenon: vasospasm of digital arteries triggered by cold (or stress) causes triphasic color change — white (vasospasm/ischemia), blue (cyanosis from stagnant blood), red (reactive hyperemia). Primary Raynaud's is benign vasospasm. Secondary Raynaud's is associated with connective tissue diseases (scleroderma, lupus). Warm the hands, transport for workup.

5. Question 5

   At a office lobby, a 57-year-old female says chest pain moves into the jaw. Which OPQRST element is this?

   • A.RadiationCorrect
   • B.Provocation
   • C.Last intake
   • D.Events

   Why:Correct. Radiation describes where pain travels.

6. Question 6

   At a dialysis center, a 67-year-old male with chest pain says it improves when sitting forward. What does this belong to?

   • A.ProvocationCorrect
   • B.Patient count
   • C.Allergies
   • D.Mechanism

   Why:Correct. Factors that improve or worsen pain are provocation/palliation details.

7. Question 7

   You respond to a 48-year-old male with severe right flank pain, hematuria, and nausea. He is unable to stay still. Temperature is 37.0 degrees C. His BGL is 96. As you assess him he reports tingling in his right groin and scrotum. What does the radiation of ureteral pain to the groin and scrotum indicate about the stone's location?

   • A.The pain radiation indicates the stone is in the kidney pelvis
   • B.Groin radiation indicates the stone has already
   • C.Scrotal pain with kidney stones indicates testicular involvement
   • D.The radiation to the groin and scrotum indicates the stoneCorrect

   Why:Correct. Ureteral stone pain radiation: as the stone migrates distally the pain tracks down the ureter dermatomal distribution — flank (upper ureter) → groin (mid-ureter) → scrotum/labia (distal ureter/UVJ). Distal ureteral stones are the most painful due to the narrow UVJ. This radiation pattern helps localize stone position. Transport for CT evaluation.

8. Question 8

   You respond to a 66-year-old male reporting dizziness and weakness on his right side that started 45 minutes ago while eating breakfast. His wife states his speech sounds garbled. On arrival he has left-sided facial droop, right arm drift on arm raise, and slurred speech. His last known well time was 45 minutes ago. Vital signs: HR 88, BP 196/114, SpO2 96%, GCS 12. What is the PRIORITY action?

   • A.Rapid stroke-center transportCorrect
   • B.Administer aspirin 324 mg chewed
   • C.Obtain a full SAMPLE history before transport decisions are made
   • D.Apply oxygen at 15 LPM via NRB — SpO2 96% is too low

   Why:Correct. The Cincinnati Stroke Scale identifies three findings: facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormality — all three are present here. Last known well time of 45 minutes makes this patient potentially eligible for thrombolytics at the hospital. Priority 1 transport to a stroke center is the critical action. Aspirin is contraindicated until hemorrhagic stroke is ruled out by CT.