Free NREMT Practice Questions
Trauma
Bleeding control, airway risk, and rapid transport decisions. Learn when seconds matter most.
What you'll master
- ✓Hemorrhage control sequencing
- ✓Airway protection in trauma
- ✓Spine considerations by MOI
- ✓Rapid transport triggers
Common misses
- –Delaying bleeding control
- –Missing airway risk
- –Overworking on scene
Sample questions.
25 free trauma questions with answers and explanations. MedRelay's full question bank covers every NREMT domain, plus live scenarios that grade the decision, not just the answer.
Question 1
A pelvic-injury patient is pale and hypotensive. What is your main concern?
Why:Correct. Pelvic trauma can cause severe internal bleeding. Treat for shock and transport rapidly.
Question 2
You respond to a 26-year-old male who was struck by a car while crossing the street. He is unconscious at the scene. HR 152, BP 62/38, SpO2 88%, RR 6, GCS 5. He has obvious deformity of his left femur, a rigid abdomen, and an unstable pelvis on gentle compression. Your transport time to a Level I Trauma Center is 8 minutes. How should you allocate those 8 minutes?
Why:Correct. Load-and-go for multisystem trauma with hemodynamic collapse. Airway management and pelvic binder are performed during the loading process. BVM for RR 6 is immediate. Scene time beyond immediate life threats approaches zero. 8 minutes to a trauma center with a hemodynamically unstable patient means movement within 60-90 seconds of arrival.
Question 3
A 55-year-old male fell 20 feet. He is unconscious. On rapid trauma assessment, a section of the right chest wall moves inward on inspiration and outward on expiration. What injury causes paradoxical chest wall movement?
Why:Correct. Flail chest: free-floating rib segment moves paradoxically (inward on inspiration, outward on expiration). The underlying pulmonary contusion is the more serious injury. BVM-assisted ventilation if tidal volume is insufficient. Priority 1 ALS transport.
Question 4
You respond to a 38-year-old female who was the driver in a rear-end collision. She is conscious and ambulatory. She reports neck pain that started immediately after impact. Physical exam reveals midline cervical tenderness at C5-C6. She denies numbness or weakness. Vital signs are stable. She insists she is fine and wants to drive home. What is your assessment and how do you counsel her?
Why:Correct. Midline cervical spine tenderness after a traumatic mechanism is a clinical criterion for spinal precautions. Ambulatory status does not rule out an unstable fracture. A neurologically intact patient can have an unstable spinal fracture that becomes catastrophic with movement. Document midline tenderness in your assessment and strongly advise against driving.
Question 5
You respond to a 33-year-old male who was struck in the right eye by a racquetball at close range. He reports immediate severe pain and vision loss. On inspection the right eye is very soft to gentle palpation compared to the left and the anterior chamber appears to have collapsed. There is no visible protrusion of ocular contents. What does a soft eye with anterior chamber collapse after blunt trauma indicate?
Why:Correct. Ruptured globe signs: soft eye (reduced IOP from fluid loss), anterior chamber collapse, severe pain, vision loss. Blunt or penetrating trauma can cause scleral rupture. Critical management: NO pressure to the eye (forced expulsion of intraocular contents). Cover with a rigid shield (not a patch). Keep NPO (surgery likely). Never remove any impaled object. Immediate ophthalmological evaluation.
Question 6
You respond to a 33-year-old male who was struck in the right temporal region by a baseball. He was briefly unconscious for approximately 1 minute. He has been fully awake for the past 20 minutes and is now talking normally to his teammates. On your assessment his GCS is 15, pupils are equal and reactive, and he has no focal deficits. He wants to return to the game. What is the most dangerous aspect of his presentation?
Why:Correct. Brief LOC followed by a lucid interval (apparently normal recovery) is the hallmark of epidural hematoma. The middle meningeal artery runs through the temporal bone — a baseball to the temple can fracture it. Initial accommodation is followed by rapid deterioration. This patient requires Priority 1 transport and CT imaging — not return to play.
Question 7
A motorcyclist has an open femur fracture with severe bleeding. What should you address first?
Why:Correct. Severe bleeding is a life threat and must be controlled before lower-priority assessment steps.
Question 8
You respond to a 38-year-old male who sustained a gunshot wound to his right anterior thigh. On arrival there is pulsatile bright red arterial hemorrhage from the wound. You apply direct pressure for 2 minutes but hemorrhage continues uncontrolled. What is the next intervention?
Why:Correct. Uncontrolled arterial hemorrhage after direct pressure requires a tourniquet. The tourniquet is placed 2-3 inches proximal to the wound and tightened until bleeding stops. Time of application must be documented and communicated to the receiving facility. Tourniquet use in extremity arterial hemorrhage saves lives.
Question 9
At a soccer field, a 30-year-old female open chest wound bubbles with each breath. What dressing is appropriate?
Why:Correct. An open chest wound needs an occlusive dressing and reassessment.
Question 10
At a restaurant, a 33-year-old male has an eye injury with a possible embedded object. What should you do?
Why:Correct. Stabilize an embedded object and protect both eyes if protocol indicates.
Question 11
You respond to a 21-year-old male who was thrown from a horse. He struck his right upper abdomen on a fence post. He is conscious with HR 122, BP 94/70, and right upper quadrant tenderness. He reports referred pain in his right shoulder. SpO2 97%. What is the anatomical explanation for right shoulder pain after right upper abdominal trauma?
Why:Correct. Right shoulder referred pain after RUQ trauma is the right-sided equivalent of Kehr's sign. The phrenic nerve (C3-C5) innervates the central diaphragm and shares dermatomal representation with the ipsilateral shoulder. Blood or fluid under the right hemidiaphragm from hepatic laceration irritates the diaphragm and refers pain to the right shoulder. Confirms right subphrenic blood — hepatic injury.
Question 12
A 22-year-old male has a Zone II neck stab wound with active arterial bleeding. HR 128, BP 88/68. What is the correct hemorrhage control technique?
Why:Correct. Direct pressure only — never circumferential pressure around the neck. Circumferential pressure simultaneously compresses bilateral carotid arteries (bilateral cerebral ischemia) and the trachea (airway obstruction). Direct pressure on the wound site controls hemorrhage safely. Wound packing with gauze may be used for deep wounds. Priority 1 surgical transport.
Question 13
You respond to a 25-year-old male cyclist who was struck by a car. He has road rash covering his entire right arm and right leg. He is conscious with GCS 15 and stable vital signs. As you clean the wounds for dressing, he reports burning pain. What type of wound care is appropriate for road rash (abrasion) in the field?
Why:Correct. Abrasion wound care: gentle irrigation with sterile water or normal saline removes road grit and debris. Debris embedded in healing abrasions causes permanent tattooing. Apply sterile non-adherent dressings after irrigation. In extensive abrasions, transport for thorough professional wound cleaning. Document wound size, location, and irrigation performed.
Question 14
At a assisted-living room, a 68-year-old male flail chest patient has shallow respirations and cyanosis. What is your priority?
Why:Correct. Flail chest can impair ventilation. Support breathing and transport rapidly.
Question 15
At a mall corridor, a 45-year-old female has burns to the entire front of the torso. What BSA estimate is closest?
Why:Correct. The anterior torso is about 18 percent by adult Rule of Nines.
Question 16
At a fitness center, a 23-year-old female open chest wound bubbles with each breath. What dressing is appropriate?
Why:Correct. An open chest wound needs an occlusive dressing and reassessment.
Question 17
You respond to a 43-year-old male who was working on the engine of his car when it fell off the jack stands and landed on his chest. He was trapped for approximately 20 minutes before rescue. He is now freed and conscious with HR 142, BP 86/52, SpO2 89%. His abdomen is rigid, he is coughing up blood-tinged sputum, and his face and neck have multiple small red petechiae. What does facial and conjunctival petechiae combined with compression trauma suggest?
Why:Correct. Traumatic asphyxia: sudden massive chest compression causes a spike in intrathoracic venous pressure transmitted superiorly to the head and neck. Capillary rupture produces petechiae in the face, conjunctivae, and neck. Internal injuries from the compression (pulmonary contusion, pneumothorax, solid organ injury, diaphragmatic rupture) are extensive. Priority 1 trauma center.
Question 18
A sucking chest wound is present. What dressing is appropriate?
Why:Correct. An open chest wound needs an occlusive dressing and ongoing reassessment for respiratory worsening.
Question 19
At a assisted-living room, a 69-year-old male crush injury patient is trapped and fire is extricating. What is EMT-B role?
Why:Correct. Support ABCs, coordinate with rescue, request ALS, and prepare transport.
Question 20
You respond to a 41-year-old female who was in a moderate-speed MVC. She is 26 weeks pregnant. She is alert with GCS 15. HR is 108, BP is 104/72. She has abdominal tenderness. Fetal kicks are present. She appears stable. How should you position her during transport?
Why:Correct. Pregnant trauma patient positioning: at 20 weeks or beyond, the uterus compresses the IVC in the supine position — reducing venous return and potentially 30% of cardiac output. Left tilt (wedge under right hip or left tilt of the backboard) relieves IVC compression while maintaining spinal alignment. This is critical in trauma where hemorrhagic shock may already be reducing output.
Question 21
You respond to a 55-year-old male who was struck by a car at low speed while walking. He reports right rib pain and splinting (he holds his breath when asked to breathe deeply). He has no hypotension or tachycardia. SpO2 is 95%. HR is 88, BP is 128/78. He is alert. Why is right rib pain with splinting concerning despite reassuring vital signs?
Why:Correct. Rib injury splinting risk: splinting reduces tidal volume causing hypoventilation, atelectasis, and progressive hypoxia over hours — especially dangerous in elderly and COPD patients. Underlying pulmonary contusion and pneumothorax may not produce immediate vital sign changes. Continuous SpO2 monitoring and transport for evaluation are indicated. Pain management at the hospital reduces splinting and improves ventilation.
Question 22
A burn patient has hot liquid on the arm. What is appropriate early care?
Why:Correct. Stop the burning process, cool briefly with clean water, then cover with a dry sterile dressing.
Question 23
At a clinic waiting room, a 62-year-old male crush injury patient is trapped and fire is extricating. What is EMT-B role?
Why:Correct. Support ABCs, coordinate with rescue, request ALS, and prepare transport.
Question 24
You respond to a 26-year-old construction worker who had a steel beam fall across his right thigh. He has a closed mid-shaft femur fracture with significant swelling and deformity. He is in severe pain, HR 128, BP 92/64, SpO2 96%, GCS 15. What is the MOST appropriate splinting device and what is a contraindication you must rule out before applying it?
Why:Correct. Traction splint is indicated for isolated mid-shaft femur fractures. It must NOT be used if there is an accompanying knee injury, open fracture at the hip or knee, pelvic fracture, or partial amputation. The traction mechanism can worsen these associated injuries significantly.
Question 25
At a restaurant, a 32-year-old male fall patient has neck pain and numb fingers. What is appropriate?
Why:Correct. Neck pain with neurologic symptoms after trauma supports spinal motion restriction.
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